Question 1

How do I assign a course in the LMS?

Accepted Answer

We have made it super simple to assign a course to your team or to a specific individual.  Check it out in the video below

Question 2

I can't hear the sound in the LMS. How do I fix this?

Accepted Answer

Question 3

How do I email users in the LMS?

Accepted Answer

Did you know that you can email users directly from the LMS? All customized to if they have their specific course status? Check it out in the video below.

Question 4

How do I remove a user and/or group leader in the LMS?

Accepted Answer

Keep your group hierarchy up to date! You can remove inactive users and/or group leaders following the instructions in the video below.

Question 5

What are the testing requirements for testing a level 1 emergency generator?

Accepted Answer

weekly visual of all components including batteries and all ATS's
 	monthly test under load for 30 minutes excluding cool down time
 	annual load bank with 50% load at 30 minutes and 75% load for 60 minutes NOTE: This only applies if 30% load or manufacturer's recommended exhaust temp is not met during any of the monthly tests
 	four-hour triennial test at 30% load

Reference NFPA 110: Standard for Emergency and Standby Power Systems (2010) Chapter 8 for a full list of Inspection, Testing, and Maintenance (ITM) activities.

Question 6

What is permitted to be in a stairwell?

Accepted Answer

Only equipment that supports the stairwell, no other items are permitted.

Reference NFPA 101: The Life Safety Code (2012) 7.1.3.2.1 for a list of requirements.

Question 7

What is The Joint Commission SAFER matrix?

Accepted Answer

A comprehensive visual representation of Joint Commission survey findings where all findings are plotted according to the likelihood of the issue to cause harm to patients, staff, or visitors, in addition to how widespread the problem is, based on the surveyors’ observations.

Refer to this document for more information from The Joint Commission on the SAFER matrix

Question 8

How often is environmental/Environment of Care (EoC)/Physical Environment (PE) rounding required to be performed?

Accepted Answer

CMS and its deemed Accreditation Organizations (AOs) do not define a specific frequency for environmental/EoC rounding. It is the responsibility of the organization to define rounding frequency within its own policy.

Question 9

What are the Joint Commission testing intervals for Elements of Performance requiring specific timeframes?

Accepted Answer

For items designated as every 36 months/3 years or greater, the activity must be completed at 36 months from the last event +/- 45 days.
For items designated as annually/every 12 months/once per year/every year, the activity must be completed at one year from the last event +/- 30 days.
For items designated as every six months/semiannually, the activity must be completed at six months from the last event +/- 20 days.
For items designated as quarterly, the activity must be completed at three months from last event +/- 10 days.
For items designated as monthly, the activity must be completed 12 times per year, once per calendar month.
For items designated as weekly/every week, the activity must be completed once per calendar week.

For more information reference The Joint Commission's Comprehensive Accreditation Manual for Hospitals (CAMH) Environment of Care (EC) Chapter, Other Issues for Consideration Section.

Question 10

What is required to be notated on life safety drawings?

Accepted Answer

Life Safety Drawings are living documents that should include at a minimum:

 	Areas of the building that are fully sprinklered (if the building is partially sprinklered)
 	Locations of all hazardous storage areas
 	Locations of all fire-rated barriers
 	Locations of all smoke-rated barriers
 	Sleeping and non-sleeping suite boundaries, including the size of the identified suites
 	Locations of designated smoke compartments
 	Locations of chutes and shafts
 	Any approved equivalencies or waivers

For more information on Life Safety Drawings, check out this article by Jim Peterkin in HFM Magazine.

Question 11

What is the difference between active and passive life safety systems?

Accepted Answer

Active life safety systems

Active systems require an action or mechanism to activate and provide protection. For example, the brakes, seatbelts, and airbags in your car are all types of active life safety systems. In buildings, active systems like fire alarm systems detect smoke quickly, giving as much notice as possible to begin evacuation. Then fire suppression systems activate to contain the fire to prevent it from spreading.

Active life safety systems include (to name a few):

 	fire alarm system smoke detectors
 	fixed fire suppression systems like sprinklers
 	portable fire suppression systems like fire extinguishers
 	firefighters
 	and more

Passive life safety systems

Passive systems do not require any mechanism to activate; they continuously provide protection. For example, the bumper or windshield on your car are types of passive life safety systems. In buildings, these systems prevent the spread of smoke and flames to other areas.

Passive life safety systems include (to name a few):

 	smoke compartments
 	rated barriers, doors, and assemblies
 	means of egress
 	and more

Question 12

What does defend-in-place mean?

Accepted Answer

The patients within a hospital are often deemed incapable of self preservation.  This means that when they enter under the hospital's care that the hospitals is responsible for protecting them in the event of an emergency such as a fire.  Hospitals are broken down into smoke compartments to allow hospital staff move patients horizontally to an adjacent smoke compartment in the event of smoke/fire.  If the fire continues to grow then the hospital staff will move vertically to a floor below the fire. Only as a final resort will hospital staff evacuate patients from the building.

For the official definition reference NFPA 99 Health Care Facilities Code (2012) 3.3.35 and the associated Annex A material.

Question 13

What is that maximum allowable size for smoke compartments?

Accepted Answer

Under NFPA 101 (2012), the currently adopted code for health care, the maximum smoke compartment size is 22,500 sq. ft.. Each floor in a healthcare occupancy is required to have at least two smoke compartments to allow for horizontal evacuation.

Beginning in the 2018 Edition of NFPA 101, the smoke compartment size was increased to 40,000 sq. ft. to align with the maximum travel distance in new construction, which is 200 ft.  Until a newer edition is adopted by the Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS), hospitals must not exceed 22,500 sq. ft.

Question 14

What is considered a high-rise building?

Accepted Answer

A high-rise building is defined as exceeding 75 ft. from the wheels of a fire truck to the highest occupiable floor.  This was originally established due to the maximum fire truck ladder height and changes the fire fighting tactics.  As such, high-rise buildings have additional fire protection and life safety features to aid with firefighter response.

Question 15

What fire resistance rating is required between and occupancy adjacent to a health care occupancy?

Accepted Answer

2-hour rated fire-barrier is required because health care occupancies are defend in place and require a higher level of protection.

For more information reference NFPA 101 The Life Safety Code (2012) Table 6.1.14.4.1(a) Required Separation of Occupancies (hours)

Question 16

What is the difference between a fire-protection and fire-resistant rating?

Accepted Answer

The fire-protection rating is the amount of time a building component or assembly was exposed to NFPA fire testing, while the fire-resistant rating is time (in minutes or hours) that an assembly can withstand exposure to fire.

Question 17

Are markings, such as stenciling required on fire barriers, smoke barriers, and smoke partitions?

Accepted Answer

While NFPA 101 The Life Safety Code (2012) does not require hospitals to have markings or stenciling, fire barriers, smoke barriers, and smoke partitions are required by the International Building Code (IBC) beginning in the 2015 edition to be visually marked, usually by stenciling, on both sides of the barrier to indicate its rating.

This requirement is not retroactively applied; therefore older buildings may or may not have permanent markings, such as stenciling.

For more information reference the IBC (2018) 703.7.

Question 18

What are the required ratings for fire doors?

Accepted Answer

Typically, fire doors are required to have at least ¾ the rating of the wall/barrier in which theyre installed. For example, a two-hour wall is required to have a 90-minute rated door while a one-hour rated wall is required to have a 45-minute door.

The reason the door carries ¾ the rating of the wall/barrier is because combustibles such as boxes are not stacked in front of the door.

There are a few exceptions to this rule, such as when a hazardous storage area has more than one door and one of the doors is permanently locked and it is used for storage. The door must now be converted to a 60-minute door.

For more information check out this great article from iDigHardware.

Question 19

How do I add new users to my group in the LMS?

Accepted Answer

We have made it super simple to add one or multiple users to a specific group.  Check it out in the video below.

Question 20

What is the difference between a confined space and a permit-required confined space?

Accepted Answer

Confined spaces are large enough for an employee to enter fully and perform assigned work, are not designed for continuous occupancy by the employee, or have a limited or restricted means of entry or exit. Permit-required confined spaces contain or have the potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere, contain a material with the potential to engulf someone who enters the space, have an internal configuration that might cause an entrant to be trapped or asphyxiated by inwardly converging walls or by a floor that slopes downward and tapers to a smaller cross-section, or contains any other recognized serious safety or health hazards.

Want to learn more? Check out the OSHA guideline here: https://www.osha.gov/laws-regs/regulations/standardnumber/1910/1910.146

Question 21

What are the requirements for stairwell signage?

Accepted Answer

Thanks to Ruben Garcia, The Life Safety Guy, for creating this FAQ! Connect with Ruben HERE

Per NFPA 101: Life Safety Code, 2012 Edition - Chapter 7 Means of Egress, stairway identification for new enclosed stairs serving three or more stories and existing enclosed stairs serving five or more stories shall meet the following criteria:



(A) Signage shall be provided at each floor landing within the stair enclosure.
(B) Signage shall indicate the floor level.
(C) Signage must include the highest and lowest accessible floor.
(D) Signage must identify the name of the stair enclosure.
(E) Signage must indicate floor of exit discharge and the direction to get to the exit discharge
(F) Signage must be installed in manner that is visible with the stair door open or closed and must be installed about 5 feet above the landing.
(G) Signage must be visible under emergency power conditions and must meet the requirements of ICC/ANSI A117.1, American National Standard for Accessible and Usable Buildings and Facilities.
(H) The floor level designation shall be tactile (raised lettering) and must include Braille.
(I) Signage can be installed on the wall or it can be stenciled or painted on the wall.
(J) Signage identifying the name of the stair enclosure shall be located at the top, be at least 1 in. in height, and must meet the requirements of ICC/ANSI A117.1, American National Standard for Accessible and Usable Buildings and Facilities.
(K) Stairs with no roof access shall indicate NO ROOF ACCESS and shall be at least 1 in, in height, and must meet the requirements of ICC/ANSI A117.1, American National Standard for Accessible and Usable Buildings and Facilities.
(L) The floor level shall be located in the middle of the sign, be at least 5 in. in height, and must meet the requirements of ICC/ANSI A117.1, American National Standard for Accessible and Usable Buildings and Facilities. Mezzanine levels shall have the letter “M” and basement levels shall have the letter “B”, and shall be tactile (raised lettering).
(M) Identification of the highest and lowest accessible floor shall be located at the bottom of the sign, shall be at least 1 in. in height, and must meet the requirements of ICC/ANSI A117.1, American National Standard for Accessible and Usable Buildings and Facilities.

Bonus Tip: Be sure to review your local AHJ's stair signage requirements to ensure you are complying with both the Life Safety Code and any local ordinances. Most AHJs will allow stairway signs to be designated only by alphabetic letters (can not use numbers to designate stairways). The example of the stairway sign shown is customized to meet both the City of Houston and the Life Safety Code signage requirements. See referenced red letters in the example that correspond with the signage criteria A - M. Message me if you would like a courtesy remote review of one of your stair signs for compliance.

Question 22

What is the distance between a fire alarm relay and the emergency control function?

Accepted Answer

Thanks to Joseph R. Cervantes, Sr. for creating this FAQ! You can connect with Joseph HERE

NFPA 72 requires that the maximum distance between a fire alarm relay and the emergency control function needed to be within 3 feet of one another. This has been misinterpreted by many contractors who install relays in elevator rooms, on rooftops and in small crammed damper plenums that are impossible to service later or easily access for installation.



If you apply the standards correctly, you will find that all of these relays can be mounted in one location with an unlimited distance between the device controlling the emergency control function and the function itself. In this example, the devices are within the 3 feet requirements per NFPA 72 21.2.4 and can be mounted where serviceable. Mind you, this only applies when an interposing control relay is used, which meets the intent of NFPA 72 21.2.10 and is listed for the loads that are being controlled.

Question 23

What is the difference between a fire wall and a fire barrier?

Accepted Answer

Fire walls are designed to divide and separate a building, either internally or externally. The intent of the code is that this division creates separate buildings because fire walls are designed for adequate structural stability to preserve wall integrity in case of building construction collapse as a result of a fire on either side of the wall. Think about a parking garage connected to a hospital. The wall separating the two is a fire wall built with the intent of allowing the parking structure to collapse in the event of a fire before collapse of the fire wall.

Fire barriers, on the other hand, carry a Fire-Resistance Rating (FRR) and is intended to compartmentalize a building into smaller fire-resistant zones. They help to control the spread of fire within the same building by dividing it into sections with fire-resistant walls or partitions. Think about a hazardous storage area within a new hospital. Due to the increase in combustible materials within the room, it is separated from the rest of the area by a 1-hour fire barrier.

Click HERE for a video to learn more!

Question 24

What is the required testing interval for engine-driven fire pumps?

Accepted Answer

1. Weekly No-Flow (Churn) Test:

Purpose: This test is primarily designed to ensure the engine starts reliably and runs properly for a minimum duration without actually flowing large amounts of water through the system piping. It verifies the readiness of the engine, batteries, fuel supply, and basic pump operation.
Procedure: The pump is started and run without discharging water through the main fire protection system piping. Water typically circulates within the pump casing or through a small bypass line (using the circulation relief valve) to prevent the pump from overheating due to lack of flow (churn).
Duration: For diesel engine-driven pumps, NFPA 25 typically requires this test to be run for at least 30 minutes.
What's Checked: During this test, personnel should observe and record:

 	Successful automatic or manual start.
 	Engine operating parameters (oil pressure, coolant temperature, speed/RPM).
 	Battery charging system operation (voltage and amperage readings).
 	Time taken for the engine to reach operating speed.
 	General condition (leaks, vibrations, unusual noises).
 	Fuel level.
 	Discharge pressure (at churn conditions).
 	Operation of the circulation relief valve (ensuring some water is flowing to prevent overheating).

2. Annual Flow Test:

Purpose: This is a much more comprehensive test designed to verify that the fire pump and its water supply can meet the system's hydraulic demand. It confirms the pump's performance across its operating curve (pressure and flow capabilities).
Procedure: Water is flowed from the pump through designated test outlets (like a test header with hoses and nozzles, or sometimes flowed back to the water source like a tank or reservoir if designed for it). Measurements are taken at specific flow rates.
Flow Rates Tested: The test typically involves measuring the pump's performance at three key points:
No-Flow (Churn): Verifying maximum pressure at zero flow.
100% Rated Flow: Ensuring the pump delivers its rated water volume (GPM or L/min) at its rated pressure (psi or bar).
150% Rated Flow (Overload): Confirming the pump can deliver 150% of its rated volume at a pressure not less than 65% of its rated pressure (as per typical pump curves).
What's Checked: During this test, personnel measure and record:
Suction pressure.
Discharge pressure.
Flow rate (using flow meters or pitot gauges).
Engine speed (RPM).
Engine operating parameters under load (oil pressure, coolant temperature).
Time taken to reach stable operating conditions.
The performance is compared against the pump's original certified shop test curve and the results from the initial field acceptance test to detect any degradation.

For additional resources, check out the videos on our YouTube channel below, and additional Expert Answers, such as How Often are Fire Pumps Required to be Tested?

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hZocf9T4iI8

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=B9WT-cQM-rg

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yLi853s76r0

Question 25

What is the Emergency Power Supply (EPS)?

Accepted Answer

The Emergency Power Supply (EPS) is a component within the emergency power supply system (EPSS) that generates electrical power serving the entire EPSS. The EPS is most commonly thought of as a diesel-fueled generator; however, NFPA 99, The Healthcare Facilities Code, permits Healthcare Microgrids, which allows for any combination of EPS's to serve the EPSS such as solar panels, hydrogen fuel cells, wind turbines, co-generation, hydro-electric power, and more. To use a healthcare microgrid, a facility must elect the CMS Categorical Waiver.

Question 26

What is the fire resistance rating of the room housing the Emergency Power System (EPS)?

Accepted Answer

NFPA 110 is the governing standard for emergency and standby power systems. The Emergency Power Supply (EPS) room for Level 1 applications, which is where failure of the EPS could result in death or serious injury, must be separated from the rest of the building by a 2-hour fire resistance rating construction. The standard permits other Emergency Power Supply System (EPSS) equipment to be installed in the EPS room.

Question 27

What is the NFPA 110 lighting requirement for Level 1 or Level 2 Emergency Power System EPS equipment locations?

Accepted Answer

Level 1 or Level 2 EPS shall be provided with battery-powered emergency lighting if indoors. If the equipment is located outside, there is no lighting requirement for the units that do not include walk-in enclosures. This battery-powered lighting ensures that personnel can safely see to access, operate, troubleshoot, or maintain the critical EPS equipment during a power outage when the normal building lights would be off. This is essential for managing the emergency power system precisely when it is needed most.

Question 28

What is required to be kept near a Level 1 Emergency Power Supply (EPS)?

Accepted Answer

NFPA 110, the emergency and standby power standard, requires that there shall be two sets of instruction manuals. One set is to be near the equipment, and the other in a secure location. The instruction manual that is near the EPS is there for emergencies when the EPS fails to start. If a Level 1 system fails to start, it can result in loss of human life or serious injury, so having an instruction manual close by is critical. The second instruction manual in a secure location ensures that there is always a back-up manual in the event the other one is damaged or missing.

Question 29

What are the requirements for an opening in a smoke barrier door in existing healthcare occupancy?

Accepted Answer

Smoke Barrier Doors are required to be fire-rated glazing or wired glass panels. In addition to using listed fire-protection-rated glazing (or compliant wired glass), vision panels in these doors are limited in total area, typically to 1296 square inches per door leaf. Critically, openings such as louvers, grilles, or transfer ducts are generally prohibited to maintain the door's smoke-blocking capability. The glazing material and its frame must also be listed for use in a smoke barrier door assembly. 19.3.7.6, 19.3.7.6.2, 8.5

Question 30

Does CMS permit locks on patient sleeping room doors?

Accepted Answer

According to the CMS State Operations Manual (SOM) Tag K221, locks on patient sleeping room doors are not permitted unless the key-locking device that restricts access from the corridor does not restrict egress from the patient room, or the locking arrangement is permitted for patient clinical, security, or safety needs in accordance with 18.2.2.2.5 or 19.2.2.2.5. 18.2.2.2, 19.2.2.2, NFPA 101 (2012) TIA 12-4.

Question 31

What are the requirements for the maintenance and testing of hospital-grade receptacles?

Accepted Answer

Originating in NFPA 99, Health Care Facilities Code, and reflected in CMS requirements like State Operations Manual (SOM) Tag K914, hospital-grade receptacles mandate specific testing to ensure electrical safety in patient care areas. This testing must occur after the initial installation and after any replacement or servicing of the receptacle. The required tests verify several critical aspects: the receptacle's physical integrity (checking for damage), the continuity and quality of the essential grounding connection, the correct electrical polarity (hot, neutral, ground wiring), and, importantly, the plug retention force, ensuring a secure grip to prevent accidental disconnection of medical devices. For ongoing safety, periodic re-testing intervals are established by the healthcare facility through a documented equipment management program that analyzes risks and uses performance data, with all test results and findings rigorously documented, especially for receptacles at patient beds and in anesthetizing locations.

Question 32

What are the requirements for the maintenance and testing of receptacles not listed as hospital-grade?

Accepted Answer

For standard electrical receptacles (those not listed as hospital-grade) that are present in patient care locations like patient rooms or areas where sedation/anesthesia might be administered, NFPA 99 imposes a more prescriptive testing schedule compared to their hospital-grade counterparts. These standard receptacles must undergo safety testing at defined intervals that do not exceed 12 months to ensure their ongoing integrity and proper function. This routine testing typically includes verifying essential safety aspects such as physical integrity, the continuity of the grounding pathway, and correct electrical polarity, with all findings required to be documented as part of the facility's electrical safety program.

Question 33

What are Conditions of Participation (CoPs)?

Accepted Answer

Conditions of Participation (CoPs) represent a comprehensive set of federal regulations developed by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) that healthcare facilities, including hospitals, nursing homes, home health agencies, and others, must rigorously adhere to if they wish to receive payments from the Medicare and Medicaid programs. These mandatory requirements function as baseline standards designed to protect patient health and safety and ensure a minimum quality of care across a wide spectrum of operational areas, encompassing patient rights, clinical services like nursing and infection control, governance, emergency preparedness, quality assessment, and the physical environment. CMS, or state survey agencies acting on its behalf, verifies ongoing adherence through unannounced compliance surveys, possessing the authority to investigate any participating healthcare facility. Given that Medicare and Medicaid funding can constitute a substantial portion of a facility's operational budget, potentially reaching up to 80% depending on its location, patient population, and services provided, sustained compliance with the CoPs is not only vital for financial stability but also fundamental to maintaining certification and demonstrating a commitment to safe, effective patient care.

Question 34

What is head?

Accepted Answer

Head refers to how high (meters or feet) a pump can move water or another fluid up through a building. Head is a crucial part of calculating what types of pumps you will need in a system, and how they should be arranged.

For Example
Let's say you have a single pump in the basement of a 6-story hospital building, but that pump's head is not capable of pumping the water up to that 6th floor.

You might think you can just increase the waterflow rate (pump water through faster), but this would actually decrease the head because the increased flow causes more friction in the system.

One way to increase the head of the system is to add another pump in series in that system. These two pumps could maintain the same flow rate while combining their separate head measurements to move the water up through the building.

Question 35

What is an air-side economizer?

Accepted Answer

An economizer is not always a single component but rather a control method that relies on several components in a system. Primarily, an economizer is used to reduce energy consumption.

In HVAC Applications
An air-side economizer includes programming the system to bring in more outside air when its temperature is lower than the inside air. The system opens up an outside air damper to bring in more outside air. To balance the airflow volume in the system a return air damper in the return air duct closes by the same amount.

Since the outside air is already chilled, there isn't a need to push chilled water all the way from a chiller in a central plant to the air handling unit's chilled water coil to absorb heat from the air to cool it down.

This reduced need for mechanical cooling allows the system to save on that energy consumption.

Question 36

Series and parallel pumps: what's the difference?

Accepted Answer

Series Pumps
Pumps in a series are installed one after another in the piping. This is usually to achieve the necessary head to pump water from a lower level to a higher level while maintaining pressure standards and waterflow. This is possible because two pumps in series allow their respective heads to be added together to achieve a higher overall head. However, these pumps will pump at a constant (not variable) flow rate.

One disadvantage of series pumps is if one pump goes out, the waterflow is interrupted at that point in the system.

Parallel Pumps
Pumps in parallel are arranged parallel to one another, rather than one after another. This allows each pump to function independently of the others. If one fails, the waterflow will not be interrupted, or at least minimally. Parallel pumping is often used to achieve high waterflow rates. The waterflow rate of each pump can be added to the others to increase this value and match the load. Head values of parallel pumps are not additive, however, as you see in series pumps.

What is head? Click here to learn more.

Question 37

What is static pressure?

Accepted Answer

Static pressure is the pressure created by everything else in the ductwork that resists the airflow from the fan. This can include anything from the ductwork itself to the various dampers, coils, and other components installed in the system.

Static pressure is measured in "inches of water column" or simply "in. wc".

When static pressure increases, the HVAC system must work harder to overcome it. This means the system must increase the volume of air it is pushing and which also increases the energy being used.

How much more energy is needed? The 3 Fan Laws can help which you can read about here. 

Why is static pressure measured in "in. wc"? Why not PSI?

Question 38

Why is static pressure measure in "inches of water column"? Why not PSI?

Accepted Answer

Water column (wc) is related to PSI, or pounds per square inch.

1 psi = 28 in. wc
1 in. wc = 1/28 psi

1/28 psi is a small value. Using "in. wc" helps us represent these smaller pressure values in larger units

The History and Reason for Inches of Water Column
U-tube manometers used in older systems to measure static pressure were installed with water inside a u-shaped portion of the piping. As gas or some other medium filled the piping, it pushed the water through the u-tube and created a column of water. As the pressure of the gas or medium increased, it pushed the water even higher up on that column. This column, as you can imagine, was measured in "inches."

Here's a YouTube video you can check out for more information.

Question 39

What are the 3 Fan Laws?

Accepted Answer

The 3 Fan Laws help us understand how different variables in an air-side system affect one another. While the math behind them may seem complex, you don't need to know them to practically apply these 3 laws.

The basic takeaway
Fan Law #1 shows us that if the fan speed changes, the airflow volume will change at the same rate. Fan Law #2 shows us that if the fan speed changes, the static pressure will change at the square of the change of the fan speed. Fan Law #3 shows us that if the fan speed changes, the power will increase at the cube (to the third power) of the change in fan speed.

Minor changes to variables in your HVAC system can cause bigger changes to other variables in your system, which is important for maintaining the system with normal operating parameters based on its design.

Want to go even deeper? We can break everything down for you so it makes more sense.

Fan Law #1

Fan Law #2

Fan Law #3

CFM2 = CFM1 x (RPM2 / RPM1)

Okay, but what does that mean?

CFM2 - The new airflow volume in "cubic feet per minute."
CFM1 - What the airflow volume was before in "cubic feet per minute."
RPM2 - The new speed of the fan motor in "revolutions per minute."
RPM1 - What the speed of the fan was before in "revolutions per minute."

What this shows us is that the change in airflow volume in a system is exactly proportional to a change in fan speed.

For example, if you need to increase your airflow volume by a certain percentage, you'll have to increase your fan speed by that same percentage to achieve the desired airflow volume.

SP2 = SP1 x ( (RPM2 / RPM1) ^ 2 )

Here we see a relationship between the static pressure changes in a system and the fan speed. But what do all of these variables mean?

SP2 - The new static pressure in the system.
SP1 - The old static pressure in the system.
RPM2 - The new speed of the fan in "revolutions per minute."
RPM1 - What the speed of the fan was before in "revolutions per minute."

This shows us that the static pressure in a system will change in proportion to the square of the change in fan speed. In other words, if your fan speed increases by 5% (1.05), the static pressure will need to increase by the square of that change: (1.05 x 1.05 = 1.10) or a 10% increase.

For example, a static pressure of 2.0" wc would increase to 2.20" wc with just a 5% increase in the fan speed.

HP2 = HP1 x ( (RPM2 / RPM1) ^ 3 )

Here we see a relationship between the power used by the fan motor and the fan speed. In other words, the energy being used is related to the speed of the fan in this formula. But what do all of these variables mean?

HP2 - The new amount of power being drawn to the fan motor in horsepower, but could be represented in other units.
HP1 - What the power being drawn to the fan motor was before.
RPM2 - The new speed of the fan in "revolutions per minute."
RPM1 - What the speed of the fan was before in "revolutions per minute."

This shows us that the power needed to meet the demand will change in proportion to the cube of the change in the fan speed. In other words, if your fan speed increases by 5% (1.05), the power will need to increase at the cube of that 5% change: (1.05 x 1.05 x 1.05 = ~1.16) or 16%.

For example, if a variable frequency drive is currently allowing the fan motor to operate at 10 horsepower, a 5% increase in fan speed would require 15% more horsepower to keep up with the load: 11.5 horsepower.

Question 40

What is the difference between a fire damper and a smoke damper?

Accepted Answer

The most obvious difference between a fire and a smoke damper is in their names. A fire damper is explicitly used to block and/or resist fire, whereas smoke dampers block or resist smoke.

They also differ in their design

A fire damper usually has a fusible link, which melts when the air in the duct gets too high (as with a fire). The fusible link will then allow the fire damper to shut, cutting off the fire from the rest of the system.

A smoke damper is usually controlled by an actuator that is connected to a smoke detection system. When smoke is detected, the smoke damper's actuator will receive the signal to close.

Question 41

How is a final filter different from a primary filter?

Accepted Answer

Many HVAC systems will include at least one filter bank. This is called the primary filter, and the efficiency (rating) of these filters depends on the space the HVAC unit is serving. In a standard AHU configuration, the primary filter bank sits upstream of the coils and the supply air fan. They help filter dirt, dust, debris, and other contaminants before the air is conditioned and supplied to the space.

Other HVAC systems will also have a secondary filter bank installed. This is commonly called the "final" filter. Unlike the primary filter, the final filter often sits downstream of the coils and the supply air fan. Its purpose is to catch what the primary filter couldn't, which is often smaller particulates and even pathogens.

It is not uncommon to see HEPA filters installed in final filter banks for critical spaces, like protective environments or operating rooms.

Question 42

What is a fan array?

Accepted Answer

It sounds like complicated math, but a fan array is really just a block of smaller fans. Fan arrays are often used in place of single, larger fans.

Fan arrays allow for redundancy in the system. All that means is that if one fan goes down, the other fans in the array can just pick up the slack, but continue to function. In a single fan system, a fan failure would mean the system could no longer push air.

Fan arrays are classified by their arrangement. For example, the fan array below is a 2x3 array because there are 2 rows of fans, with each row having 3 fans.

Question 43

What is a draw-through AHU configuration?

Accepted Answer

A draw-through configuration refers to how the coils and the supply fan are configured in an air handling unit. In a draw-through configuration, the coils are installed upstream of (before) the supply fan. This means that they are installed on the "suction" side of the fan.

On the suction side of a fan, air is being pulled. The supply fan will "draw" air "through" the coils in this configuration.

If the coils and fan were to switch places, it would be a blow-through system. You can learn more about that by clicking here.

Draw-Through Example
The image below shows a standard draw-through AHU configuration. Notice the fan would pull (or draw) air through the heating (red) and chilled (blue) water coils.

Question 44

What is a blow-through AHU configuration?

Accepted Answer

A blow-through configuration refers to how the coils and the supply fan are configured in an air handling unit. In a blow-through configuration, the coils are installed downstream of (after) the supply fan. This means that they are installed on the "discharge" side of the fan.

On the discharge side of a fan, air is being pushed. The supply fan will "blow" air "through" the coils in this configuration.

If the coils and fan were to switch places, it would be a draw-through system. You can learn more about that by clicking here.

Blow-Through Example
The image below shows a standard blow-through AHU configuration. Notice the fan would push (or blow) air through the heating and chilled water coils.

Question 45

What is a MERV rating?

Accepted Answer

A MERV rating refers to the scale on which filters are rated. This rating system was developed by ASHRAE and stands for minimum efficiency reporting value.

The higher the MERV rating, the more particles the filter can capture, and the smaller those particles can be. Particle sizes range from 0.3 and 10 microns (µm).

The MERV scale runs from 1 - 20.

For Example: 
A MERV 1-4 filter can only capture particles 3.0 - 10.0 in microns. A MERV 14, common in critical areas like operating rooms, can capture particles as low as .30 microns.

HEPA filters can capture even smaller particles with a much higher efficiency rating.

References: https://www.epa.gov/indoor-air-quality-iaq/what-merv-rating

Question 46

What is the difference between MERV and HEPA?

Accepted Answer

ASHRAE developed the MERV rating system to rate filters on their efficiency. MERV stands for minimum efficiency reporting values. Filters with lower MERV ratings are not as efficient, catching only larger particles. Higher-rated filters can capture smaller particles more efficiently. The current MERV scale ranges from 1-16.

Anything higher than MERV 16 is likely a HEPA filter due to its high performance.

HEPA stands for high-efficiency particulate air and these filters have an equivalent MERV rating of 17 or more. They can capture tiny particles in the 0.3-micron range, including dust, dirt, and pathogens.

They are used to treat critical spaces like protective environments in hospitals.

Question 47

What is the difference between a CAV unit and a VAV unit?

Accepted Answer

The most basic difference between a CAV unit and a VAV unit is the way by which they modulate air.

A constant volume system (CAV) can only produce air at a constant volume. To condition a space, the CAV produces air at a constant volume but changes the temperature to achieve space temperature setpoints.

A variable system (VAV) can produce air at varying volumes. Instead of changing the temperature in the system like a CAV, the VAV changes the volume of air being pushed to a space at a constant temperature.

Example
An air handling unit (AHU) may have a VAV terminal unit installed before one of the spaces being served. The supply air temperature leaving the AHU can be at 55°F, but the VAV terminal unit (or box) can use a damper to vary the volume of air coming through it and into the space. If the space temperature setpoint is set to be warmer, then the damper can be fully closed. Opening the damper more will allow more cool air from the AHU to enter the space, and lower its temperature.

Question 48

What does NFPA stand for?

Accepted Answer

NFPA stands for the National Fire Protection Association, which is an international organization that has devoted its purpose to eliminating fire, electrical, or other related hazards that can cause a loss of life, injury, or other issues.

This organization publishes several codes applicable to facilities management. The codebook named NFPA 101, also known as the Life Safety Code, is one of the most well-known.

NFPA 101 addresses the minimum design, construction, operation, and maintenance requirements for keeping all types of buildings, and more importantly their occupants, from any danger caused by fire, smoke, and/or toxic fumes.

The most recent edition of this code is the 2021 edition.

Reference: https://www.nfpa.org/codes-and-standards/all-codes-and-standards/list-of-codes-and-standards/detail?code=101

Question 49

What does ASHRAE stand for?

Accepted Answer

ASHRAE was formerly referred to as The American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers. Now, they are formally known simply by their acronym: ASHRAE (pronounced ash-ray).

ASHRAE's goal is to continually improve the design, construction, and performance of heating, ventilation, air conditioning, and refrigeration systems.

ASHRAE publishes various standards, like ASHRAE 170: Ventilation of Health Care Facilities.

Reference: https://www.ashrae.org/

Question 50

What does FGI stand for?

Accepted Answer

FGI is also known as the Facilities Guidelines Institute. They publish guidelines specifically for the design and construction of healthcare facilities, including hospitals.

Since FGI publishes guidelines, each state may choose to follow them differently, or even not at all, opting instead to create their own standards to follow.

Still, many states choose to adopt the Guidelines as law. Those states are able to choose what editions of the Guidelines they want, with the most recent edition being published in 2018.

43 states currently adopt the FGI Guidelines.

Reference: https://fgiguidelines.org/guidelines/state-adoption-fgi-guidelines/#:~:text=The%20data%20FGI%20currently%20has,adopted%20only%20the%20HVAC%20requirements).

Question 51

What is CMS?

Accepted Answer

CMS stands for the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. CMS is part of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services and is an authority having jurisdiction (AHJ) over healthcare facilities.

CMS performs hospital surveys, or contracts with third-party accrediting organizations (AOs), like The Joint Commission (TJC), to do them on their behalf. Hospitals are able to choose which AO they wish to work with.

Hospitals that participate in the Medicare and Medicaid program must maintain compliance with CMS and the standards set forth by its AOs in order to be considered for reimbursement.

Question 52

What is TJC?

Accepted Answer

TJC stands for The Joint Commission, one of the major accrediting organizations (AOs) in the United States. They perform hospital surveys on behalf of The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) to ensure hospitals maintain compliance with federal law.

They currently cover over 22,000 healthcare facilities in the United States.

Note that hospitals are able to pick what accrediting organization they wish to work with.

Reference: https://www.jointcommission.org/about-us/facts-about-the-joint-commission/joint-commission-faqs/#:~:text=The%20Joint%20Commission%20accredits%20and,and%20nursing%20care%20center%20services.

Question 53

What is an Accrediting Organization (AO)?

Accepted Answer

Accrediting organizations (AOs) are third-party organizations contracted and recognized by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) to confer a healthcare facility’s deemed status through a compliance verification survey process. In other words, they perform hospital surveys for CMS to determine hospital accreditation.

Major AOs Include: 

 	The Joint Commission (TJC)
 	DNV
 	Center for Improvement in Healthcare Quality (CIHQ)
 	HFAP

Check out the full list of CMS Accrediting Organizations here

Question 54

What is an Ambulatory Surgical Center (ASC)?

Accepted Answer

An ASC is an occupancy that provides services or treatment to 4 or more patients that does one of two things:

 	renders patients incapable of self-preservation
 	provides outpatient surgical treatment requiring general anesthesia

Reference NFPA 101 The Life Safety Code (2012) 3.3.188.1 and NFPA 99 Health Care Facilities Code (2012) 3.3.6 for the official definition.

Question 55

How Can I Access the Notes Tool in the Learning Management System (LMS)?

Accepted Answer

Easily access the notes tool by selecting the notes icon here in the LMS. Don't worry, it won't mess up anything you are doing in the course, and notes automatically save when you exit out of it. Review the video below

 

https://legacy-fm.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/LFM-Notes-Icon-Micro-How-To.mp4

Question 56

What are the dedicated power circuit requirements for fire alarm systems?

Accepted Answer

Thanks to Ruben Garcia, The Life Safety Guy, for creating this FAQ! Connect with Ruben HERE

 

Per NFPA 72: National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code, 2010 Edition - Chapter 10 Fundamentals– fire alarm systems, to include fire alarm control panels, fire alarm audio/visual notification appliances (NAC) power supplies, and fire alarm communicators must be installed on a dedicated power circuit. The dedicated power circuit breaker shall have a red marking, be accessible only to authorized personnel, and be identified as "FIRE ALARM CIRCUIT”. In addition, the dedicated circuit breaker location must be identified at the fire alarm control unit, NAC power supply, or fire alarm communicator.
These fire alarm panel power circuit requirements are necessary to increase the reliability of the fire alarm systems' power source.

Bonus Tip 1: Fire alarm systems in healthcare settings must be connected to the essential electrical system, specifically the life safety branch.

Bonus Tip 2: The requirement to install a listed breaker locking device on circuit breakers was introduced in the 2013 edition of NFPA 72.

Bonus Tip 3: The status of the fire alarm system is typically one of the first life safety features that is checked during an accreditation survey visit. Surveyors are looking to see if the fire alarm system’s disconnecting means is identified and if there are any fault conditions on the system that may warrant a life safety risk assessment such as a fire watch.

Question 57

What are the requirements for stair enclosure door assemblies serving more than 4 stories?

Accepted Answer

Thanks to Ruben Garcia, The Life Safety Guy, for creating this FAQ! Connect with Ruben HERE

Original LinkedIn Post: https://www.linkedin.com/posts/thelifesafetyguy_lifeabrsafetyabrtipabrofabrtheabrweek-nfpa101-activity-7122189940951547905-zQN1?utm_source=share&utm_medium=member_desktop
Per NFPA 101: Life Safety Code, 2012 Edition - Chapter 7 Means of Egress– door assemblies in a stair enclosure serving more than 4 stories shall meet one of the following conditions:
A. Re-entry from the stair enclosure to the interior of the building shall be provided.
B. An automatic release that is actuated with the initiation of the building fire alarm system shall be provided to unlock all stair enclosure door assemblies to allow re-entry.
C. Selected re-entry shall be provided in accordance with the requirements listed below.

Doors assemblies shall be permitted to be equipped with hardware that prevents re-entry into the interior of the building provided all of the following criteria are met:

(1) At least two stories must be capable of re-entry and accessing another exit
(2) No more than four stories intervening between stories capable of re-entry and accessing another exit
(3) The top story or next-to-top story shall be capable of re-entry and provide access to another exit
(4) Door assemblies allowing re-entry shall be identified as such on the stair side of the door leaf.
(5) Door assemblies not allowing re-entry shall be provided with a sign on the stair side indicating the location of the nearest door opening, in each direction of travel, that allows re-entry or exit.

Bonus Tip: The following stair door assembly applications serving more than 4 stories are exempted from re-entry requirements (1) through (3) mentioned above:
· Existing stair installations in a non-high-rise building permitted by the applicable occupancy chapter.
· Existing stair installations in a fully spinklered high-rise building permitted by the applicable occupancy chapter
· Existing stairwell re-entry installations approved by the AHJ
· Stair enclosures serving a building permitted to have a single exit
· Stair enclosures in health care occupancies
· Stair enclosures in detention and correctional occupancies

Question 58

What are the maintenance requirements for pressure-dependent spaces in healthcare?

Accepted Answer

Thanks to Ruben Garcia, The Life Safety Guy, for creating this FAQ! Connect with Ruben HERE

Original LinkedIn Post: https://www.linkedin.com/posts/thelifesafetyguy_regulatoryabrcomplianceabrtipabrofabrweek-activity-7132351905573310464-bep0?utm_source=share&utm_medium=member_desktop




Regulatory Compliance Insight of the Week: Maintaining Pressure-Dependent Spaces in Healthcare

The upkeep and maintenance of pressure-dependent spaces in healthcare settings are vital to reducing healthcare-associated infections (HAIs). Proper ventilation and air pressure differentials will reduce and prevent the transmission of airborne pathogens, one of the most dangerous HAI pathogens. Healthcare spaces required to undergo special ventilation and air pressure differential requirements will fall into two categories: positive pressured or negative pressured, in relation to their respective adjacent spaces.

 	Positive Pressured Rooms: Also known as protective rooms, these push air outwards to combat air pathogens from contaminating patients or clean supplies in rooms. Typical positive pressured rooms are operating rooms and clean supply rooms.
 	Negative Pressured Rooms: These suck in air like a vacuum and contain airborne contaminants within the room. Rooms required to be negatively pressured include soiled workrooms, isolation rooms, janitor closets, restrooms, and ER waiting areas.

There are several ways to monitor and maintain your pressure-dependent spaces:

 	Electronic Monitoring: Through an integrated building automation system (BAS) or a dedicated stand-alone system. Wires run to pressure sensors near the openings and back to a control panel, monitoring pressure relationships in real time and alerting end-users if a room is out of compliance.
 	Local Visual Indication: For less critical spaces, such as soiled holding rooms and clean workrooms. A visual indicator device above a door opening provides real-time pressure status indication.
 	Handheld Air Pressure Instruments and Meters: Used to record air pressure differentials.
 	"Flutter" Test: Checks airflow directions using smoke, an airflow checker, or a tissue positioned at the undercut of a doorway to monitor the direction.

Refer to the 2008 edition of ASHRAE's Standard 170, Ventilation of Health Care Facilities for further guidance.

Bonus Tip: Consider including all of your pressure-dependent spaces on your inventory onto your ventilation testing program to include the pressurized spaces deemed less critical such as Soiled Utility Rooms, Janitor Closets, Restrooms, and Clean Supply Rooms. Pressured room issues continue to be one of the top findings from all accreditation organizations. An airflow issue can easily turn a smooth survey into a rather unfavorable survey outcome and can lead into a condition level finding or worse - an IJ (immediate jeopardy).








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Question 59

What are the requirements for medical gas piping labeling?

Accepted Answer

Labels are required every 20 ft. and not painted, at least one label in or above every room, both sides of penetrated walls and partitions, at least one label in every story height crossed by risers, and the arrow points in the direction of flow.

Question 60

What is the difference between through and membrane penetrations?

Accepted Answer

Through penetrations pierce “all the way through” a rated wall or floor. Membrane penetrations pierce through only one side of a wall or floor.

Question 61

What are the requirements for medical gas zone valve labeling?

Accepted Answer

Externally located, visible sign that states the locations served, states the medical gas it is serving, and signage that states to either only close or only open valve in an emergency.

Question 62

Where are master medical gas alarm panels required?

Accepted Answer

At least two master alarm panels are required, located away from each other. One panel must be in an area of continued surveillance, such as security dispatch. The other panel must be located near the department that services the equipment.

Question 63

Where are medical gas area alarm panels required?

Accepted Answer

Area alarm panels are required in critical care and anesthetizing areas. The panels are required to be located where staff members are often present, such as a nurses’ station, visible from multiple rooms, and where audible alarms can be heard throughout the unit.

Question 64

What are the storage requirements for medical gas E-cylinders?

Accepted Answer

Up to 300 cubic feet, or 12 E-cylinders, can be stored in an area of 22,500 SF, which is the maximum allowable size of a smoke compartment.

Full cylinders must be separated from empty cylinders.